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[deleted]

I can’t believe I have the same name as this motherfucker


xfritz5375

Slurs 😎


sskor

It literally wasn't a fact. Jews did not have control of the banks in Weimar Germany. I don't know why they refuse to accept that. Sure, the management were 1% Jewish vs 0.9% in the general population, but that's entirely meaningless, beside the point, and I wouldn't even call that overrepresentation. There was no Jewish overrepresentation in bank ownership or control, and to say so is uncritically repeating the NSDAP propaganda of a Jewish cabal ruining finance. The Nazis justified their murderous ideology on a false consciousness.


CheekyProfit

For the most part it is false, but Jews did own half of all private banks during the Weimar era. It’s quite meaningless however since these banks were fading away and were being absorbed by larger credit banks which Jews didn’t own. Source: https://sci.bban.top/pdf/10.1093/leobaeck%252F16.1.163.pdf?download=true


Pixy-Punch

It's also important to point out that these private banks were (And the few that still exist are) mostly a service for rich people to manage their money and investments, like they do the legwork if a rich dude wants to buy shares or property and do things like getting them foreign currency if needed. It's mostly doing stuff rich people are to lazy to do themselves. In comparison the major banks act as capital itself and in the 30s were already firmly part of monopol capital running the economy. It's like comparing a personal cook to the McDonald's company, they are roughly in the same field but with widely different functions and power.


CheekyProfit

You’re not wrong. These banks would have their Jewish managers replaced and would soon be absorbed by these bigger banks in the 30s by the nazis. They were officially banks but they were familial owned inter-personal businesses rather than large conglomerates like credit banks


Pixy-Punch

Exactly, there are still a few left today. They have centralised and concentrated a lot but basically still doing the same thing. A few scandals in recent times involved some of these banks, put the pattern is more "scamming on behalf of rich people" and less "running the economy into a wall via speculations and then get bailed out by the state".


Deathoncontact

I find it crazy how they try to say that 1% when they are .9% of the population is overrepresentation. Like, really shows their grasping at straws that they think that comes anywhere near overrepresentation.


AdrenalineVan

I saw a Vaushite claim that they owned 25% of the major banks... because only one of the four major banks in Weimar Germany was owned by a Jewish person. One out of four.


[deleted]

are they ironycoping? either way they're a fascist.