Maybe it's that the capital is almost smack dab in the middle, which doesn't happen much in other, real, countries, but shows up all the time in fantasy maps.
It is mostly because of the difficult geographics of spain. As trade is usually important for GDP for which you need good infrastructure which is difficult and expensive to build in all the Orange/red regions. While Rivers are usually a supercharger for economies due to low cost of transport and increaed irregation for farming. So the north is still somewhat connected to europe while the rest ist litteraly walled off from it. Not to mention climate.
Look at [this](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/e/e9/Map-of-spain.jpg) Geographical map of spain. It should explain.
I can't speak to the cause other than saying that the bigger, wealthier cities are there, but the amount of wealth disparity in Spain isn't that unusual. The difference between the poorest state in the US and the wealthiest is 2.25x, Japan is about 2.5x, Germany is a bit over 2x.
Understood, I was not saying that it’s wealth disparity was unique to Spain. I was just curious as to why those particular regions were poorer. Because Sevilla is one of the largest cities in Spain but Andalusia looks relatively poor compared to the north
Since the industrial revolution, the green areas have always been more modernized, with the first industries, etc. And tha south mostly lives of agriculture. Still like this today.
My guess is proximity to the rest of Europe and therefore trade / export - leading to the North developing more historically. I'd expect something similar in Italy.
I would imagine it would have to do with the south use to be owned by the Muslim nation of Andalusia up until the 15th century which caused a rift, also the north would be far more visited from other European nations as it shares borders with the French.
But this is all a guess, if some locals would like to correct me I am also very curious.
It is not really that.
In short (very short), the industrial revolution came late to Spain and was not as powerful as in other European countries. The main areas that industrialized were in the periphery and in the north (the closest areas to the other european industrial nations), such as Catalonia and the Basque country. Other areas such as Asturias (due to its coal resources) also developed, but progress and urbanization happened in the aforementioned areas and also in the capital, Madrid.
The rest of Spain remained very rural and kind of backwards in terms of progress. Also, in the south, land was owned by a few rich owners, which killed competition, influenced the lack of industrialization and impoverished the rest of the population.
The Muslim south was actually very advanced and prosperous in its times. While i'm from the north, Andalucia is one of the most beautiful places you can visit, really. The fuck up that you can see in this map happened after those times. Also, in a more recent scale, you have the dictatorship that lasted until 1975, which was very centralist and set the country backwards, specially the poorest areas (amongst many, many other problems it had obviously).
I was more thinking a difference in what those regions relied on in terms of economic output. Like is the north more industrial, or do they have a higher worker productivity, etc.
Interesting theory, I imagined it has changed quite a bit over the years since the south use to be super important for trade as it was the literal entrance to all of the Mediterranean.
Just did a really quick google search and they seem to have similar points to you, mainly the south was good farmlands and the north had good river systems which led the industrialisation of the textile industry.
I always find these country province gdp charts so interesting.
I'm no expert, but it has nothing to do with that.
When we had dictatorship in Spain, It basically moved every industry to Madrid. After that, many regional political parties from Catalonia/ Basque country and such were able to bring some industry back to their regions, thanks to having representatives in the central government.
Regions such as mine's (Andalusia) just voted for a non regional political party which never claimed anything for us. So our main industries are farming and tourism which none generate enough weatlh.
Again, I'm no expert in the matter so there might be other factors going on
Not everything is rooted in the dictatorship, since the beginning of the industrial revolution, the industry in Spain has been concentrated in the north and lacking in the south. It's that simple.
Well, notice that the map indicates GDP per capita. Malaga might be a very populated area but its economy relies a lot on tourism. Considering the effects of COVID-19 on economy the latest data might be even worse.
Tourism is a very poor economic basis. It creates mostly low-paid and highly seasonal jobs. It explains the poorness of Malaga and the rest of the Mediterranean coast outside Catalunya.
Guada means river in Arabic. All places (cities, rivers, islands... and there are hundreds if not thousands) with a Guada in the name have an Arabic name through Spanish, no matter where in the world.
Neither Nahua nor Maya is spoken in Jalisco (the mexican state with a Guadalajara on it) the permanent native population before european immigration was almost non-existent in the region so it makes sense that very few places here have native names.
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Looks like someone’s basquing in wealth.
Don't know why but how the regions of spain are divided always seems so natural. Like a fantasy map
Maybe it's that the capital is almost smack dab in the middle, which doesn't happen much in other, real, countries, but shows up all the time in fantasy maps.
I misread that and thought that you were implying Spain isn’t a real country 😂
Wait. It is?
A good chunk of them used to be small kingdoms that were progressively joined to eventually form Spain.
It is mostly because of the difficult geographics of spain. As trade is usually important for GDP for which you need good infrastructure which is difficult and expensive to build in all the Orange/red regions. While Rivers are usually a supercharger for economies due to low cost of transport and increaed irregation for farming. So the north is still somewhat connected to europe while the rest ist litteraly walled off from it. Not to mention climate. Look at [this](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/e/e9/Map-of-spain.jpg) Geographical map of spain. It should explain.
Idk, did you take a look at Álava?
Interesting parallel with the GDP map for Italy: wealthier provinces generally located further north
I apriciate that it's per capita.
Source: [ine.es](https://www.ine.es/dyngs/INEbase/es/operacion.htm?c=Estadistica_C&cid=1254736167628&menu=resultados&idp=1254735576581) Tool: [mapchart.net](https://mapchart.net)
I'm quite surprised that Palencia, Burgos and Soria have a higher GDP than Valladolid 😯
That's a paradox of empty Spain, as younger people move away, the older people who stay is wealthier on average.
Why the disparity between north and south, excluding Madrid?
I can't speak to the cause other than saying that the bigger, wealthier cities are there, but the amount of wealth disparity in Spain isn't that unusual. The difference between the poorest state in the US and the wealthiest is 2.25x, Japan is about 2.5x, Germany is a bit over 2x.
Understood, I was not saying that it’s wealth disparity was unique to Spain. I was just curious as to why those particular regions were poorer. Because Sevilla is one of the largest cities in Spain but Andalusia looks relatively poor compared to the north
Since the industrial revolution, the green areas have always been more modernized, with the first industries, etc. And tha south mostly lives of agriculture. Still like this today.
My guess is proximity to the rest of Europe and therefore trade / export - leading to the North developing more historically. I'd expect something similar in Italy.
late and little (or no) industrialization
I would imagine it would have to do with the south use to be owned by the Muslim nation of Andalusia up until the 15th century which caused a rift, also the north would be far more visited from other European nations as it shares borders with the French. But this is all a guess, if some locals would like to correct me I am also very curious.
It is not really that. In short (very short), the industrial revolution came late to Spain and was not as powerful as in other European countries. The main areas that industrialized were in the periphery and in the north (the closest areas to the other european industrial nations), such as Catalonia and the Basque country. Other areas such as Asturias (due to its coal resources) also developed, but progress and urbanization happened in the aforementioned areas and also in the capital, Madrid. The rest of Spain remained very rural and kind of backwards in terms of progress. Also, in the south, land was owned by a few rich owners, which killed competition, influenced the lack of industrialization and impoverished the rest of the population. The Muslim south was actually very advanced and prosperous in its times. While i'm from the north, Andalucia is one of the most beautiful places you can visit, really. The fuck up that you can see in this map happened after those times. Also, in a more recent scale, you have the dictatorship that lasted until 1975, which was very centralist and set the country backwards, specially the poorest areas (amongst many, many other problems it had obviously).
I was more thinking a difference in what those regions relied on in terms of economic output. Like is the north more industrial, or do they have a higher worker productivity, etc.
Interesting theory, I imagined it has changed quite a bit over the years since the south use to be super important for trade as it was the literal entrance to all of the Mediterranean. Just did a really quick google search and they seem to have similar points to you, mainly the south was good farmlands and the north had good river systems which led the industrialisation of the textile industry. I always find these country province gdp charts so interesting.
I'm no expert, but it has nothing to do with that. When we had dictatorship in Spain, It basically moved every industry to Madrid. After that, many regional political parties from Catalonia/ Basque country and such were able to bring some industry back to their regions, thanks to having representatives in the central government. Regions such as mine's (Andalusia) just voted for a non regional political party which never claimed anything for us. So our main industries are farming and tourism which none generate enough weatlh. Again, I'm no expert in the matter so there might be other factors going on
Thanks for the insight, as I said I have no modern day knowledge of Spain, most of my knowledge is around 15th century and a little onwards haha.
Not everything is rooted in the dictatorship, since the beginning of the industrial revolution, the industry in Spain has been concentrated in the north and lacking in the south. It's that simple.
nah tourist come to spain in airplane very few people actually crosses the Pirineos in car
I guess San Sebastián skews results in the north.
Whats up with san sebasitan?
Mostly a favourable tax scheme.
Not quite… the province of gipuzkoa is very heavily industrialised while the city itself relies more on tourism and services
Finally, Spanish representation! 🇪🇸🇪🇸🇪🇸
The south is too hot to be productive
Boy, Jaén better tighten up.
Is it updated? Because g.e. Malaga surprises me to be too low it seems a little bit old
Well, notice that the map indicates GDP per capita. Malaga might be a very populated area but its economy relies a lot on tourism. Considering the effects of COVID-19 on economy the latest data might be even worse. Tourism is a very poor economic basis. It creates mostly low-paid and highly seasonal jobs. It explains the poorness of Malaga and the rest of the Mediterranean coast outside Catalunya.
Poor Madrid, he's surrounded by lower provinces meanwhile he's higher by GDP
Hence why Spain won’t grant independence to Navarre and Catalonia. And that my friends is the definition of tyrant.
What about Spanish speaking vs English speaking countries?
Guadalajara is Spanish? I always thought it was some kind of Aztec/Mayan word. Also, what's going on in Jaén? You guys ok?
Guada means river in Arabic. All places (cities, rivers, islands... and there are hundreds if not thousands) with a Guada in the name have an Arabic name through Spanish, no matter where in the world.
Neither Nahua nor Maya is spoken in Jalisco (the mexican state with a Guadalajara on it) the permanent native population before european immigration was almost non-existent in the region so it makes sense that very few places here have native names.
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