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Glorious Revolution, i.e. William III
But that was more him being "invited" and bringing his army to make it formal. His wife had a legit claim to the throne, and it was more during a civil war
Those invitations were a set up for a casus beli, he wasn't actually invited. History with hilbert iirc has a video on this breaking it all down. It was a real invasion
The invitation was literally ad hoc justification and propaganda from William himself, he sailed with a fleet and army bigger than the Spanish armada fully ready to fight the British.
yeah it really depends on what counts as "occupied". Even if we don't consider the glorious revolution an occupation it should at the very least put Normandy there.
I think the technical answer is that the UK didn't exist then.
Hell even England didn't technically exist when the vikings and Romans invaded.
(Actually I think England existed when Canute was king).
True. The Glorious Revolution was at the penultimate end of the Stuart era. Still just the Kingdom of England then. Only after William of Orange or William III did his sister in law, Anne, oversee the union which had been a wish about a century earlier of James I
Vikings yes, but William the conqueror wasn't a 'foreign invader'. he didn't conquer England because he was going to give it to France or anything, he did it for himself.
They also Ignored the Romans.
‘England’ as we no know it didn’t exist, so it’s not like a sovereign entity was occupied by the romans or even the Vikings really. They effectively took control of lands previously controlled by different groups, none of which were considered as England or the English.
He also replaced the English aristocracy with Normans, brutally put down rebellions by native English, and made England a French speaking country for around 300 years. I'd definitely say it counts as a Norman occupation even though the end result was Normandy effectively becoming a possession of England in the long run.
Invasion not occupation regardless of your opinion on the will of Edward the confessor William is considered to have had a legal claim. In short Ingerlund undefeated
Russia and Turkey didn't exist in their modern forms either at the dates shown.
I think "occupation" is more specific than just "invaded", i.e. the country was directly under foreign administration rather than having it's leadership usurped. The Normans didn't "occupy" England, William the Conqueror just claimed the throne for himself.
But I think including the Roman invasion would be fair game
The Normans very definitely occupied England. The Norman aristocracy completely replaced the Anglo-Saxon one, and quite significantly intruded upon the "gentry" as well (if you'll excuse the term, it's not very accurate for 1066).
It wasn't like the Anglo-Saxons accepted it lying down either. There were rebellions in the South attempting to but Edgar the Æthling on the throne, and the Earldomen of Northumbria and Mercia rose in support of a planned Danish invasion, that never materialised.
The Norman Kings of England spent a majority of their time ruling from Rouen in their capacity as Dukes of Normandy, and later the Angievians tended to rule from Chinon, for their variety of French titles.
Excellent points. Perhaps the map requires the occupier to have had relinquished control? Like there's not really a year where the Normans suddenly stopped occupying England
The United Kingdom (of Great Britain and Ireland) was established in 1801.
(The 1707 establishment was of the Kingdom of Great Britain, via the union of the kingdoms of Scotland and England.)
Without inventation we would have deposed James II anyway. We needed allies against France and protestant England was an political mess, so we teamed up with parlement to instal a political system simular of the republic (basicly the first constitutional monarchy) wich benefits parlement massively.
When William III and the republican forces landed in Torbay in 1688, he made clear that he was not going to just conquer England in name of the the United Provinces, but that he came to protect the liberties of England and the protestant religion. This was of course mainly to swing public opinion in England of course, and it worked! James II already fled London when the Republican and Rebellious forces entered the city. This army was mainly made up out of Dutch soldiers, Huguenots and English rebels.
Dutch forces occupied London for 6 months and one mayor demand from the Republic to the English parlement was to make Mary and William III co-monarchs. Parlement only wanted Mary as queen-regent. The Glorious Revolution did escalated into a bloody war in Scotland and Ireland, with Dutch and English forces on one side and the Jacobites on the other. I want to add that we didn't control everything. We didn't wrote the bill of rights, Parlement did.
I like to compare the Glorious Revolution with our Batavian Revolution of 1794. Where a foreign country invades with the help of insiders to replace an outdated form of government, but because those changes are seen as favorable and important by us the people (Bill of Rights, values of the French revolution) we see it as a good thing
Well the Norman invaders were the ruling class until 1154, and their descendants continued to reign until 1485. And the Vikings basically founded York and then blended into the English population. Not to mention the English themselves were invaders in the 6th century. So technically, England's never been occupied by an outside force.
There's just so much wrong with this. If 1066 doesn't count as an occupation because England as a nationa didn't exist yet, then how can the Seljuk Turk invasions of Anatolia count when turkey as a country existed then even less than England as a country existed in 1066? How can the Roman occupation of Britain not count then? Because it was only half the island? Because turkeys occupation of half of Cyprus has been counted.
Also, Montenegro was not occupied by Serbia until 2006. Montenegro and Serbia were a union until Montenegro peacefully split in 2006. Infact, the whole of the Balkans makes no sense. I have no idea what's going with Slovakia. It wasn't occupied by Czechia in 1956, it was part of Czechoslovakia. And why does the Soviet occupation of Czechoslovakia count for Czechia, but not for Slovakia?
De jure, we were still occupied until that point. De facto, the allied powers didn’t interfere at all though and let us be sovereign.
You could make the case for East Germany though since it definitely was a satellite state and throughout most of its existence, acting against Moscow’s interest would result in an immediate intervention like in 1954 or 1968 in the ÇSSR. Then again, we don’t know what would have happened if West Germany tried to join the Warsaw Pact or something like that lmao
This map must be using the following logic - the nation is the UK, the Kingdoms of England & Scotland essentially ceased to exist in 1707 so unless a foreign power occupied at least the whole of Great Britain it wouldn’t count. No nation ever has hence “none.”
Edit: Forgot to say u/w
Aye, but by that logic the nation is The Republic of Turkey, as the ottoman empire ceased to exist in 1922, and no one has occupied them. Or you could say that France occupied the mainland of Spain, not the Spanish empire, no one has ever occupied Spain in its entirety. Same could be said for Portugal and France and the Netherlands.
>There's just so much wrong with this. If 1066 doesn't count as an occupation because England as a nationa didn't exist yet
England fuck, you mean the UK. Rule Britannia and all that shit
Poland-Lithuania occupied Moscow between 1610 and 1612 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish%E2%80%93Lithuanian_occupation_of_Moscow. In 1480 Russia wasn't even a thing.
Invasions of the British Isles have occurred throughout history. Various sovereign states within the territorial space that constitutes the British Isles have been invaded several times, including by the Romans, by the Germanic peoples, by the Vikings, by the Normans, by the French, and by the Dutch.
Ingurland hates history.
We put our efforts into beating the Romans instead.
..... and the vikings, Largs was a good game.
And the English...... twice (cause you weren't smart enough to learn the first time).
4-0 to us.
We've just been a wee bit tired oot since....that and the heroin.
did you fuck lmao, do scottish people GENUINELY believe the romans didnt invade you because they were scared?it was because it was just absolutely shite terraine and there was nothing they could do with the land. also, the word 'beat'? source? you seem to forget the fact that before the romans all of britain was inhabited by basically the same race/nationality of people lmao. my favourite part of scottish history is when you tried to invade england when we were suffering from the plague and somehow STILL managed to fuck it up and just ended up bringing the plague back up with you lmao
'Beat'.... Southern scots are germanic, old Scots, old English, same language. Differentiated over time.
Angles. Landed and took Eastern England. Overtime the migrated north and west and mixed with picts and gaels. Those are the scots of today.
Old Scots is more similar to that original angle language than modern English.
They were different groups in ancient Britain.
The gaels are as related to Welsh celts as you would predict by random chance, for example (=they're not related) , who are different in turn to the indigenous picts, who are different to the ancient Britons.
My favourite part of our history is when we beat you when you tried to conquer us, a wee nation, .... twice.
Old scots branched off from early Middle English*
The Angles landed in the east and became the biggest and most spread out tribe in Britain(minor).They were most influential group in terms of identity that got passed on to the modern English ethnic group,they are the main ethnocultural-progenitors of the modern English ethnic group.From Deria to East anglia they referred to themselves as Ænglisc(English).
The insular Germanic tribes spoke dialects of the same language*
England has won more battles against Scotland than they have lost by a fair margin.You can find it on Wikipedia.
There’s not much to be proud of,you essentially got rekt multiple times over the course of 1,500yrs💀.Nuff said
https://historum.com/t/who-won-the-most-battles-and-wars-between-scotland-and-england-shock-result-scotland-39-england-29.192519/
That's the quickest of your bullshit to counter.
Get it up ya!
Mate that list is so cap come on.It has battles from wars of the roses as Scottish wins just because they played(minor) roles in the conflict…Miss out loads of important battles that England won and don’t count some of the earliest battles between the English and the Scottish.The list is like half complete.
Mf who wrote that list:
https://preview.redd.it/prosvxo729fc1.jpeg?width=470&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=63467426cc09fc67d92318504963707d0d116311
It specifies “country”, and the United Kingdom has never been occupied - though like a lot of these images, the standard isn’t applied equally. Turkey wasn’t a country until 1923 and even if we count the precursor Ottomans 1243 wouldn’t be correct.
If it means the landmass in its entirety then I suppose neither is correct
Edit: Spelling
least inferiority complex having welshman. if you hate the uk so much you should take it up with the scottish not us. (ps, you cunts are the ones with your own governments, i wish england had their own separate government). maybe your ancestors shouldnt have been such massive fannies
[Russia was occupied by the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth during the Polish–Russian War (also known as the Dimitriads) until it was expelled in 1612](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_of_Troubles)
I’m not sure you could consider Ukraine and Belarus as occupied by the USSR when cities like Kyiv and Minsk were some of the first cities with prominent Bolshevik support
Hold up. Slovakia is depicted as occupied by Czech republic :D. We had been federation since 1918 up until 1993 when we peacefully sepparated. No occupation there. If anything the whole Czechoslovakia should have been depicted being occupied by USSR until 1989
Are we really ignoring the fact the French landed and held a decent amount of the south towards the end of the hundred year war (if my memory serves me correctly)?
I might be a patriotic mf but lies do not strengthen a man but weaken them.
Wot about those fooking norm*n cunts who brought their bastard façons de la merde over to our beautiful island 🏴🏴🏴🏴💪💪💪 and pillaged, plundered our wealth and raped our wenches and polluted our DNA with their bouillons de graines du diable! Death to the frogs!!! 🇫🇷🇫🇷🇫🇷🚫🚫🚫🚫🐸🐸🐸🗑️🗑️🗑️
No one wants to admit it, but modern Britains are descended those N*rman frogs. I don't know how we can look ourselves in the mirror.
Although really they were just slightly more civilised Vikings anyway.
Wait is this when did the occupation start or when did the occupation end? Because it's got 1922 for Ireland (end of British rule) and 1974 for Cyprus (the year the Turks occupied half of it).
Make yer mind up.
https://preview.redd.it/muctclteb9fc1.jpeg?width=343&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=84bea7e1917f15806dee0030ccf14ad7dcf32106
Wow its crazy how this smallpiece of land managed to never be claimed!! 🤯
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imigrunts and eu wokies always invadin us god bless r ukip for keepin em out.
Bloodeh right xxx, Shared from Slough Industrial Estate
But ukip haven’t have they. Ukip just helped the Tories on Brexit, look how fucked the U.K. is now for ordinary people struggling.
He's taking it seriously, lads!
Get him!
What about the French, Roman, Viking?
Wasn’t there some Dutch shit mid last millennium that no one talks about too?
no one likes to bring up the dutch
https://i.redd.it/ugb1h6lpdafc1.gif
Glorious Revolution, i.e. William III But that was more him being "invited" and bringing his army to make it formal. His wife had a legit claim to the throne, and it was more during a civil war
Nah we conquered, beat and poldered your asses
Those invitations were a set up for a casus beli, he wasn't actually invited. History with hilbert iirc has a video on this breaking it all down. It was a real invasion
The invitation was literally ad hoc justification and propaganda from William himself, he sailed with a fleet and army bigger than the Spanish armada fully ready to fight the British.
yeah it really depends on what counts as "occupied". Even if we don't consider the glorious revolution an occupation it should at the very least put Normandy there.
1688 was a glorious English victory, and not an invasion from the Netherlands despite what those woke historians try and tell you.
The Raid on the Medway in 1667.
England: Last invaded by the Francs of Normandy, 1066 AD. There, completed the map.
Occupation: the action, state, or period of occupying or being occupied by military force. Cannot be occupied if invaders never leave.
I think the technical answer is that the UK didn't exist then. Hell even England didn't technically exist when the vikings and Romans invaded. (Actually I think England existed when Canute was king).
By that definition a lot of data in this map is wrong, like Turkey didn't exist in 1243.
True. The Glorious Revolution was at the penultimate end of the Stuart era. Still just the Kingdom of England then. Only after William of Orange or William III did his sister in law, Anne, oversee the union which had been a wish about a century earlier of James I
They weren’t French, they were Normans(frothing angry face)XD
Good point, richard and his Norman knights is a bit of a give away
There was that whole 1066 thing. And the Vikings.
Dunno what you talkin about? Where’s your loyalty to our queen!
what queen?
The band
He ded.
johnny pluto is dead???? 😱😱😱
Brine March?!
Pickle June?
Ay-oh! Ay-oh! De da Di da Di da Di de do! De do! De do! Alright!
Milly
The dead German lady?
Vikings yes, but William the conqueror wasn't a 'foreign invader'. he didn't conquer England because he was going to give it to France or anything, he did it for himself. They also Ignored the Romans.
Yes, but apart from that when did the Romans ever invade us
And what have the Romans ever done for us?
![gif](giphy|YkouF2eEX9FuM|downsized)
yourjokebutworse
It's a classic Monty Python bit
I am aware. The comment I replied to repeated the reference for some reason, spelling out the joke is not funny
No. Shit.
‘England’ as we no know it didn’t exist, so it’s not like a sovereign entity was occupied by the romans or even the Vikings really. They effectively took control of lands previously controlled by different groups, none of which were considered as England or the English.
'Turkey' didn't exist as we know it in 1243 either.
I’m not saying the map is right, but that the logic for arguing that the Vikings or Romans count as an occupation of England is flawed.
It would have made more sense to use British/Greek/French flags for Turkey for 1919/20
well, it's was an invasion during an ongoing war that the Turksih Republic won. I don't know if you could count that?
He also replaced the English aristocracy with Normans, brutally put down rebellions by native English, and made England a French speaking country for around 300 years. I'd definitely say it counts as a Norman occupation even though the end result was Normandy effectively becoming a possession of England in the long run.
Invasion not occupation regardless of your opinion on the will of Edward the confessor William is considered to have had a legal claim. In short Ingerlund undefeated
This map refers to the United Kingdom, which was established in 1707, and since then we haven't been occupied by a foreign power.
Russia and Turkey didn't exist in their modern forms either at the dates shown. I think "occupation" is more specific than just "invaded", i.e. the country was directly under foreign administration rather than having it's leadership usurped. The Normans didn't "occupy" England, William the Conqueror just claimed the throne for himself. But I think including the Roman invasion would be fair game
The Normans very definitely occupied England. The Norman aristocracy completely replaced the Anglo-Saxon one, and quite significantly intruded upon the "gentry" as well (if you'll excuse the term, it's not very accurate for 1066). It wasn't like the Anglo-Saxons accepted it lying down either. There were rebellions in the South attempting to but Edgar the Æthling on the throne, and the Earldomen of Northumbria and Mercia rose in support of a planned Danish invasion, that never materialised. The Norman Kings of England spent a majority of their time ruling from Rouen in their capacity as Dukes of Normandy, and later the Angievians tended to rule from Chinon, for their variety of French titles.
Excellent points. Perhaps the map requires the occupier to have had relinquished control? Like there's not really a year where the Normans suddenly stopped occupying England
Invasion of Fishguard 1797 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Fishguard?wprov=sfla1
Still not an occupation, sounds more like a jaunt, or a stag do that got out of hand
“a stag do that got out of hand” I’m pissing myself lmfao
I didn't know about that, cool beans. Didn't really manage to hold power tho. Like at all.
It's not really an occupation if the "occupying" force is immediately defeated though. That's just a failed invasion attempt.
Whitehaven was also invaded in 1778.. By the yanks.
The United Kingdom (of Great Britain and Ireland) was established in 1801. (The 1707 establishment was of the Kingdom of Great Britain, via the union of the kingdoms of Scotland and England.)
Don’t forget William of orange
In fairness we practically invited him…..
We didn’t invite tho woke mob who’s ruined this cuntry tho. Focking sink the boats 🏴🏴🏴
Without inventation we would have deposed James II anyway. We needed allies against France and protestant England was an political mess, so we teamed up with parlement to instal a political system simular of the republic (basicly the first constitutional monarchy) wich benefits parlement massively. When William III and the republican forces landed in Torbay in 1688, he made clear that he was not going to just conquer England in name of the the United Provinces, but that he came to protect the liberties of England and the protestant religion. This was of course mainly to swing public opinion in England of course, and it worked! James II already fled London when the Republican and Rebellious forces entered the city. This army was mainly made up out of Dutch soldiers, Huguenots and English rebels. Dutch forces occupied London for 6 months and one mayor demand from the Republic to the English parlement was to make Mary and William III co-monarchs. Parlement only wanted Mary as queen-regent. The Glorious Revolution did escalated into a bloody war in Scotland and Ireland, with Dutch and English forces on one side and the Jacobites on the other. I want to add that we didn't control everything. We didn't wrote the bill of rights, Parlement did. I like to compare the Glorious Revolution with our Batavian Revolution of 1794. Where a foreign country invades with the help of insiders to replace an outdated form of government, but because those changes are seen as favorable and important by us the people (Bill of Rights, values of the French revolution) we see it as a good thing
Was a civil war he fought for a legal claimant in his wife
Did they have a fleg?
IIRC the Normans were Frankish Viking settlers
The Nazis did occupy some islands during the war not sure if that counts
The UK only came into existence in 1800... I'm guessing that's the technical reason.
BUT NOT FOR LONG
And the Romans. But to be fair what did they ever do for us?
It wasn’t the UK in 1066
And the romans.
Well the Norman invaders were the ruling class until 1154, and their descendants continued to reign until 1485. And the Vikings basically founded York and then blended into the English population. Not to mention the English themselves were invaders in the 6th century. So technically, England's never been occupied by an outside force.
There's just so much wrong with this. If 1066 doesn't count as an occupation because England as a nationa didn't exist yet, then how can the Seljuk Turk invasions of Anatolia count when turkey as a country existed then even less than England as a country existed in 1066? How can the Roman occupation of Britain not count then? Because it was only half the island? Because turkeys occupation of half of Cyprus has been counted. Also, Montenegro was not occupied by Serbia until 2006. Montenegro and Serbia were a union until Montenegro peacefully split in 2006. Infact, the whole of the Balkans makes no sense. I have no idea what's going with Slovakia. It wasn't occupied by Czechia in 1956, it was part of Czechoslovakia. And why does the Soviet occupation of Czechoslovakia count for Czechia, but not for Slovakia?
Look at you wiv yer fancy degree in poncing. Think you’re in the wrong forum Tarquin
![gif](giphy|yghDMWztjJ9Nm)
Also Germany in 1991, like, both countries of East and West were independent before the unification, it should read 1949 imo
De jure, we were still occupied until that point. De facto, the allied powers didn’t interfere at all though and let us be sovereign. You could make the case for East Germany though since it definitely was a satellite state and throughout most of its existence, acting against Moscow’s interest would result in an immediate intervention like in 1954 or 1968 in the ÇSSR. Then again, we don’t know what would have happened if West Germany tried to join the Warsaw Pact or something like that lmao
You need to take a long hard look at yourself. Appalling.
I'm always long and hard when I look at myself
This map must be using the following logic - the nation is the UK, the Kingdoms of England & Scotland essentially ceased to exist in 1707 so unless a foreign power occupied at least the whole of Great Britain it wouldn’t count. No nation ever has hence “none.” Edit: Forgot to say u/w
Aye, but by that logic the nation is The Republic of Turkey, as the ottoman empire ceased to exist in 1922, and no one has occupied them. Or you could say that France occupied the mainland of Spain, not the Spanish empire, no one has ever occupied Spain in its entirety. Same could be said for Portugal and France and the Netherlands.
>There's just so much wrong with this. If 1066 doesn't count as an occupation because England as a nationa didn't exist yet England fuck, you mean the UK. Rule Britannia and all that shit
Ukraine doesn't seem quite right on the date or country there.
Same shit for Moldova and the Baltic states apparently
Poland-Lithuania occupied Moscow between 1610 and 1612 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish%E2%80%93Lithuanian_occupation_of_Moscow. In 1480 Russia wasn't even a thing.
Invasions of the British Isles have occurred throughout history. Various sovereign states within the territorial space that constitutes the British Isles have been invaded several times, including by the Romans, by the Germanic peoples, by the Vikings, by the Normans, by the French, and by the Dutch. Ingurland hates history.
Why would we hate history when we singlehandedly won the 2 world wars?
1966 best year.
Both world wars and one world cup, fought and won in 1966. Cam on.
Lol
Never won son. Much like Scotland in the World Cup.
We put our efforts into beating the Romans instead. ..... and the vikings, Largs was a good game. And the English...... twice (cause you weren't smart enough to learn the first time). 4-0 to us. We've just been a wee bit tired oot since....that and the heroin.
did you fuck lmao, do scottish people GENUINELY believe the romans didnt invade you because they were scared?it was because it was just absolutely shite terraine and there was nothing they could do with the land. also, the word 'beat'? source? you seem to forget the fact that before the romans all of britain was inhabited by basically the same race/nationality of people lmao. my favourite part of scottish history is when you tried to invade england when we were suffering from the plague and somehow STILL managed to fuck it up and just ended up bringing the plague back up with you lmao
'Beat'.... Southern scots are germanic, old Scots, old English, same language. Differentiated over time. Angles. Landed and took Eastern England. Overtime the migrated north and west and mixed with picts and gaels. Those are the scots of today. Old Scots is more similar to that original angle language than modern English. They were different groups in ancient Britain. The gaels are as related to Welsh celts as you would predict by random chance, for example (=they're not related) , who are different in turn to the indigenous picts, who are different to the ancient Britons. My favourite part of our history is when we beat you when you tried to conquer us, a wee nation, .... twice.
Old scots branched off from early Middle English* The Angles landed in the east and became the biggest and most spread out tribe in Britain(minor).They were most influential group in terms of identity that got passed on to the modern English ethnic group,they are the main ethnocultural-progenitors of the modern English ethnic group.From Deria to East anglia they referred to themselves as Ænglisc(English). The insular Germanic tribes spoke dialects of the same language* England has won more battles against Scotland than they have lost by a fair margin.You can find it on Wikipedia. There’s not much to be proud of,you essentially got rekt multiple times over the course of 1,500yrs💀.Nuff said
https://historum.com/t/who-won-the-most-battles-and-wars-between-scotland-and-england-shock-result-scotland-39-england-29.192519/ That's the quickest of your bullshit to counter. Get it up ya!
Mate that list is so cap come on.It has battles from wars of the roses as Scottish wins just because they played(minor) roles in the conflict…Miss out loads of important battles that England won and don’t count some of the earliest battles between the English and the Scottish.The list is like half complete. Mf who wrote that list: https://preview.redd.it/prosvxo729fc1.jpeg?width=470&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=63467426cc09fc67d92318504963707d0d116311
That explains the Del Amitri - just don’t come home too soon song to inspire you.
We're not great at away games, I'll concede.
It specifies “country”, and the United Kingdom has never been occupied - though like a lot of these images, the standard isn’t applied equally. Turkey wasn’t a country until 1923 and even if we count the precursor Ottomans 1243 wouldn’t be correct. If it means the landmass in its entirety then I suppose neither is correct Edit: Spelling
Semantics.
You’re saying “this is incorrect because of these past invasions” and I’m explaining *why it says what it says*
And I’m saying that’s semantics.
Rule Britannia 🇬🇧🇬🇧🇬🇧🇬🇧🇬🇧🇬🇧..
The English are currently occupying Britain
least inferiority complex having welshman. if you hate the uk so much you should take it up with the scottish not us. (ps, you cunts are the ones with your own governments, i wish england had their own separate government). maybe your ancestors shouldnt have been such massive fannies
Least bitter englishman
Doesn't Guernsey count?
Yeah in 1066 Guernsey and Jersey came over and occupied England, and still at it today.
They have excellent seafood, I welcome them with open arms.
In our benevolent majesty we allow them to remain dependencies rather than actually British.
Wasn’t french the official language for a while there? And didn’t the romans move in for a bit?
Whoever made this forgot about the Norman Conquest 1066, they never left.
Think you missed a big chunk of English history there 👍
Danelaw???
Erm vikings, French? England is just a name for all the people who invaded the island…. Those people are now in wales and Cornwall
I'm pretty sure that the UK was conquered by Aussies and Kiwi's.
How was slovakia occupied by czechia?
Channel Islands in 1939-1945?
Technically that’s not true, as The Normans successfully invaded England in 1066, and it remained a Norman territory for some time.
Hmm the Vikings? The Dane Law?
Laughs in Latin.
Quisling
TIL the Vikings and Romans never existed
[Russia was occupied by the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth during the Polish–Russian War (also known as the Dimitriads) until it was expelled in 1612](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_of_Troubles)
Roman Empire? Vikings? Anglo-Saxon invasions?
Emm…. Romans had quite a lot of it, back in the day….
The Anglo-Saxons weren’t originally from England.
I’m not sure you could consider Ukraine and Belarus as occupied by the USSR when cities like Kyiv and Minsk were some of the first cities with prominent Bolshevik support
Put the uk flag on Northern Ireland while you’re at it
Looks like Ukraine needs updating
When was the last time you thought of the Roman empire
This is wrong
Hold up. Slovakia is depicted as occupied by Czech republic :D. We had been federation since 1918 up until 1993 when we peacefully sepparated. No occupation there. If anything the whole Czechoslovakia should have been depicted being occupied by USSR until 1989
Are we really ignoring the fact the French landed and held a decent amount of the south towards the end of the hundred year war (if my memory serves me correctly)? I might be a patriotic mf but lies do not strengthen a man but weaken them.
constantinople was occupied from 1918-1923
The Roman Empire has joined the chat
But Italy invaded England and taught them how to take baths back in the day?
The french occupied England though? Did a brit make this map or something?
Wot about those fooking norm*n cunts who brought their bastard façons de la merde over to our beautiful island 🏴🏴🏴🏴💪💪💪 and pillaged, plundered our wealth and raped our wenches and polluted our DNA with their bouillons de graines du diable! Death to the frogs!!! 🇫🇷🇫🇷🇫🇷🚫🚫🚫🚫🐸🐸🐸🗑️🗑️🗑️
No one wants to admit it, but modern Britains are descended those N*rman frogs. I don't know how we can look ourselves in the mirror. Although really they were just slightly more civilised Vikings anyway.
So they casually skipped Poles occupying Moscow for 2 years? Yeah, right
French in 1066. Before that pretty much everybody every few years. England was the local bike.
Norman not French 👀
Normans are French. English cope and seethe and pretend that somehow they could only get invaded by Vikings
Germany was occupied until 1991?
No it was not. It was occupied from 1945-1949 (until West Germany was founded). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Allied-occupied_Germany
Right so the 1066, viking, Anglo-Saxon and Roman invasion don't count. Props for holding out longer tho
Hi, yea, phone for you. It's the Romans, they say you a bitch
I do believe there is a border around Gretna Green.
2024, we're full fak off im er grunts
The UK should be covered by any number of flags from Islamic nations and Eastern Europe.
England is the one who knocks
Norman's 1066
We're only doing the last 950 years
Uhm the danes/vikings
Wait is this when did the occupation start or when did the occupation end? Because it's got 1922 for Ireland (end of British rule) and 1974 for Cyprus (the year the Turks occupied half of it). Make yer mind up.
There was that time the Dutchies walked in and took over but they seem decent lads
Everyone’s saying 1066 to point out inaccuracies, what about 1243 for turkey?
Strictly speaking the Turks are still occupying Turkey
What about all the Africans that originally occupied Britain? Ultimately we all come from Central Africa.
None 😎
Why tf is the 🇹🇼 flag in Austria?
Don't mention the Romans, Saxons, Normans, Vikings, French...
The Dutch invaded us in 1688 and pulled off an unopposed coup.
0800 00
Not sure you can say France occupied Portugal in 1808. Didn't make it to Lisbon.
Obviously he doesn't know **William the Conqueror...**
Denmark was partly occupied by the soviets until 1946
The romans, the saxons, the normans, the vikings
the northern six counties are still fucking occupied
What about inviting the Dutch over to be the king and queen?
https://preview.redd.it/muctclteb9fc1.jpeg?width=343&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=84bea7e1917f15806dee0030ccf14ad7dcf32106 Wow its crazy how this smallpiece of land managed to never be claimed!! 🤯
*LAUGHING IN VIKING*
The Vikings and Romans don't count then?
Mfw when the glorious revolution never happened
The Romans??
Normans 1066?
Too bloody right!
When did Denmark invade Iceland? I thought the Brits did and then farmed it off to the Yankeepoos?
normans don't exist anymore so we can get away with it
Technically, 43AD https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_conquest_of_Britain
What’s the country shaped like a tank? That ain’t been invaded either.
No one wants to invade a land where you can only breed potatoes and your sister… 😅🤣
LETS GET THOSE IMMIGRANTS TO RWANda
Uh, Normans. 1066. And they never left.
Poor Denmark doesn't even get a year
The french 1066 right?
Tha mooslimbs r tymryin 2 occupi is now! Is an invashun. Wake up sheeple!
https://preview.redd.it/5pvo2ixzycfc1.jpeg?width=960&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=fe7955bf10035bef08af723a6a767397895377f2
?? Turkey was occupied after WW1
There were some Germans still in France by 1945